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Tags: baptism, believer's, infant
uuuhhhhhhh...... no difference. I was dunked after I professed faith, my wife was sprinkled as a child. I have FULL confidence that one of us will not be burning in Hell for eternity. Christ's redemptive work in our lives is my assurance. We are both bought at a price.
It does make a difference because baptism is closely related to faith and repentance in the Biblical texts. Infant baptism obscures this relationship, and in doing so, obscures understanding as to it's purpose.
I would also add that building a doctrine soley or primarily on the basis of the logical implication of a systematic theology, in this case the paedobaptist understanding of covenant theology, amounts to eisegesis. While systematic theology is useful, we must base sound doctrine on the explicit reading or direct logical conclusion of the actual texts themselves. This way systematic theology is based on sound interpretations of the text rather forcing the interpretation of the text to fit the systematic theology.
Although, would you say it doesn't make any difference at all if we understand baptism correctly?
I think it doesn't make any difference, but since you asked I assume you think it makes a difference. What would you say that difference is? Since the Biblical data is light on the details, what is the source of the "correct" understanding of Baptism?
Al Scholten said:Although, would you say it doesn't make any difference at all if we understand baptism correctly?
If we follow the Protestant lead in this regard, which I believe is important to do so, then the only source for a correct understanding of baptism is the Bible. Since baptism is the rite of initiation into the membership of the church I would think it would be important to get it right. Of course, dispensationalists see it differently.
Al
xulon said:I think it doesn't make any difference, but since you asked I assume you think it makes a difference. What would you say that difference is? Since the Biblical data is light on the details, what is the source of the "correct" understanding of Baptism?
Al Scholten said:Although, would you say it doesn't make any difference at all if we understand baptism correctly?
Al,
The point that I was making is that over reliance on systematic theology can inadvertantly lead to eisegesis. The good use of systematic theology is to lead us to a coherent understanding of how various ideas and passages fit logically together. Good systematic theology may entail interpreting some passages in light of the systematic theology provided that there is direct exegetical support from other passages. The problem comes when a systematic theology leads to doctrines that do not have any explicit or logical exegetical support from any text.
I am curious as why you do not regard it as eisegesis. There is another reason, that this discussion is important-it highlight issues of systematic theology concerning the role and limitations of systematic theology in the formulation of doctrine.
Quote: "The problem comes when a systematic theology leads to doctrines that do not have any explicit or logical exegetical support from any text."
Am I correct to conclude from your statement that you believe infant baptism does not have any explicit or logical exegetical support from any text? I do not consider the doctrine of paedobaptism as eisegesis because I believe it is grounded on biblical data. The main challenge here is to deal with the matter of infant baptism and strive to show if it is eisegesis or if it is grounded solidly in Scripture. And yes, this kind of discussion has the value of exercising our ability to examine systematic theology and biblical interpretation. As long as we keep it on the high road we can all benefit from it!
Al
Dallas said:Al,
The point that I was making is that over reliance on systematic theology can inadvertantly lead to eisegesis. The good use of systematic theology is to lead us to a coherent understanding of how various ideas and passages fit logically together. Good systematic theology may entail interpreting some passages in light of the systematic theology provided that there is direct exegetical support from other passages. The problem comes when a systematic theology leads to doctrines that do not have any explicit or logical exegetical support from any text.
I am curious as why you do not regard it as eisegesis. There is another reason, that this discussion is important-it highlight issues of systematic theology concerning the role and limitations of systematic theology in the formulation of doctrine.
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